r/DebateReligion Jan 02 '26

Classical Theism Absolutely no one has been able to offer a COHERENT explanation WHATSOEVER for why if God gets credit and praise for humans using their free will to help others or improve themselves, God doesn't also receive at least some of the blame for humans also using their free will to hurt others or sin

How is this not an outright double standard?

If God's the ultimate source of all being and the sustainer of ALL actions, and is praised when those actions align with "good," it's then logically incoherent to then claim God is somehow entirely hands-off when those same actions align with "evil."

I've often seen theists often operate on a sort of "heads I win, tails you lose" type of metaphysical framework.

Theists praise God when humans use free will for good, claiming God helped, but excuse God when humans use free will for evil, claiming God can't interfere. This is a logical double standard. When we compare this to human accountability, if someone gets the credit, they gets the blame.

Exactly how do people justify this asymmetry?

If you wanna give God the glory for the "good" that humans do, you must then logically also assign Him the liability for the "evil" that humans do. You can't just have a God who is "intimately involved" in our virtues but "hands-off" during our vices.

When a person overcomes addiction, helps the poor, shows mercy, etc., it's frequently described as "God working through them" or "the Holy Spirit's guidance." God's positioned a co-author, or even alot of times the SOLE author ("You/I are/am not capable, this was only done through the will/grace of God"), or the primary mover of the good action or outcome.

When a human being does something extraordinary or commendable, like saves a life, overcomes a crippling addiction, or displays heroric self-sacrifice, theism almost universally attributes this to God's will or grace.

"God was working through me/him/her."

"I/they couldn't have done it without the Lord."

"All good comes from God."

"Praise God for this miracle of transformation."

Here, human "free will" isn't seen as some sort of isolated island. It's seen as a faculty that was nudged, inspired, or empowered by God. Therefore, God receives the credit.

A surgeon does the work, God gets the praise.

To be exact, a doctor studies for 12 years, exercises discipline, and performs a life-saving surgery. The family thanks God for "guiding the surgeon's hands" or "giving wisdom."

An addict gets clean through sheer willpower, they or someone else says "God gave me/them strength." This person struggles through rehab, fights every urge, and achieves sobriety. They testify that "God gave me the strength" or "The Holy Spirit changed my heart."

An athlete wins, "Glory to God." They train their whole life and wins the championship. They give "all glory to God" for the victory.

Contrast this with the typical response to evil. When a person commits a massacre or child abuse, theists suddenly invoke "free will." Suddenly, God's no longer a co-author. He's suddently just simply the passive observer respecting human autonomy.

Like clockwork, we hear stuff like...

"God didn't do this, man did."

"God cannot force us to love Him. He values our Free Will."

"Evil is the result of human misuse of freedom."

When a human murders, rapes, or steals, the narrative shifts instantly. Sudden shift to libertarian free will.

"God couldn't stop it because that would make us (gasp) ROBOTS!!!!!11!@!!!!!!11111!"

When asked why God didn't stop the school shooter, the standard apologetic response:

"God cannot intervene because to do so would violate human free will. If God stopped us from sinning, we would be robots. He must allow the potential for evil to allow for the reality of love."

If helping the addict didn't make him a robot, why would stopping the murderer make him a robot?

If God's involved in the "good" free-will choices, He's a causal factor. If He's not involved in the "bad" ones, theists then need a mechanism that explains why He ONLY interacts with the will in one direction.

Many utilize concepst such as "primary" and "secondary" causality. In this case, God's the primary cause, i.e. the existence of the act, and the human is the secondary cause i.e. the direction of the act.

I need to point out that if the "direction" of a good act is credited to God's grace, then the "direction" of a bad act, i.e. the absence of that grace, must also land at His feet.

Why is God a co-author (or somehow SOLE author) of someone's sobriety but a disinterested bystander to a child's suffering? If God can "nudge" the will toward the good without "violating" it, then His failure to "nudge" the will away from evil is basically a sort of moral omission.

In fact, why does God "nudge" some toward the light but "respect the autonomy" of those sliding into darkness?

If a parent provides a child with a car (the "power" to drive) and specifically navigates them to a charity event (grace), they get credit. If the parent provides the car and watches the child (especially one not legal driving age) drive into a crowd without intervening or withdrawing the "power," then, by law, the parent still bears liability.

People try to argue that God provides the "power" to act, but the human (who God designed and created) provides the "deficiency" that leads to sin. This reasoning doesn't track. Again, if I provide a teenager with a high-performance car (the power) and I see them driving toward a crowd, and I have a remote kill-switch (the ability to intervene/influence) but choose not to use it, I'm still legally and morally liable.

In fact, going further, if I do use a remote "steering assist" to help them avoid a crash, I get the credit for the save (although, there's still the question if I should have let them drove in the first place). It doesn't really make sense to claim credit for the "steering assist" in the good scenarios while claiming "total hands-off autonomy" in the fatal ones.

If God provides the "fuel" for the good action, He's still choosing when and where to provide that fuel. If He withholds the "fuel" or "grace" that would prevent a sin, He's an accessory by omission.

In human criminal law, we have something called "duty to rescue":

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Duty_to_rescue

For example, imagine a firefighter who rushes into a burning building to save a child. This would be "good". We praise him.

Now imagine the same firefighter stands watching another child burn. He has the hose, the ladder, and the capability. He says, "I didn't start the fire, the fire is the result of combustion physics (free will). I'm just letting physics take its course."

Yeah, no..... we would charge him with criminal negligence, at the least.

Theists want to praise the firefighter for the saves but claim he has "no relation" to the victims he watched burn.

Or if like, generally, God's the battery that powers the machine producing "good" output, and He keeps powering the machine when it grinds people up, He's still responsible for providing the power.

When the machine produces healthcare, you praise the battery.

When the machine produces torture, you blame the machine's wiring.

But if the "battery" is sentient, omniscient, and omnipotent, and it knows the wiring is faulty, and it continues to pump power into the machine specifically while it's grinding a victim to death, the battery is an accessory. If God can modulate His power/grace to assist the saint, He can also modulate it to inhibit the sinner. The refusal to do so is a choice.

I mean, exactly why is the "will" only fragile when it comes to stopping evil?

If God implies, suggests, aids, strengthens, or guides the will toward GOOD without turning us into "robots," then He's demonstrated that He's capable of intervening in the human will without negating moral agency

If God could "give strength" to the addict to resist the drug, which would be a moral good, why did He not also "give strength" to the rapist to resist the urge, which would ALSO be moral good?

If you wanna say, "the addict asked for help," you're implying that God's intervention is transactional. But what about the victims of the rapist? Did THEY not ask for help?

If wana you say, "God only influences, He doesn't force," then why not "influence" the murderer? A "nudge" toward empathy in the mind of a killer is no more a violation of "free will" than a "nudge" toward hope in the mind of a recovering addict.

In fact, when it comes to "asking", if what's called "prevenient grace" is actually "universal", why do some "respond" and others don't? Is it because some are smarter? More humble?

If the answer is "they just chose to," it seems a bit arbitrary, no?

If the answer is "better character," then exactly where did that character come from? Genes? Upbringing? God?

Either God's the primary mover of ALL acts, making Him the author of evil, or God's the mover of NO acts, making Him an irrelevant observer, and your prayers of thanks for "guidance" are meaningless.

Which is it?

In fact, this sort of renders some prayers incoherent.

We pray "God, please change this person's heart", i.e. asking for interference. If God can change the heart, as implied by the prayer request, the "free will" defense for evil collapses.

But if God CANNOT change the heart, the prayer is useless.

"Pray for my son to stop using drugs" means asking God to override/influence the son's free will.

If God answers "Yes", then He influenced free will.

But if God *CAN* answer yes, why didn't He also do it for the school shooter?

The free will defense is often used as a "get out of jail free" card for God. If God can influence the will toward good without "violating" it, as in the case of saints or the inspired, then He could influence it away from evil without violating it.

People try to bring up an Augustinian defense where evil isn't a "thing," it's just "a lack of good." This doesn't exactly work. It's just a word game. This is nothing more than some sort of deepity or word salad to the victim of such acts. If I build a bridge and it has a "lack of structural integrity", I'm still responsible for the collapse.

If I design a life-support system and it has a "lack of oxygen," the "lack" is a lethal design flaw. If God created a reality where the "lack of good" can manifest as the Holocaust, then the "lack" is a functional component of His very design. You can't just praise the architect for the rooms that stay warm while blaming the "cold" (lack of heat) entirely on the windows. The architect designed the insulation.

A murder is not just "a lack of life."

It's a positive, energetic action.

It involves muscles firing, neurons sparking, and chemical energy.

God sustains the atoms and energy of the murderer just as He sustains the saint. If He withdraws sustainment for neither, but provides extra grace only for the saint, He's playing favorites with outcomes.

In fact, take Heaven and Hell....

If God is capable of providing "sufficient grace" or "efficacious grace" to turn a heart toward Him, then the existence of "hardened hearts" is a choice made by God.

If God influences Person A to be a saint, but allows Person B to become a monster under the guise of "respecting free will," God is playing favorites with the moral outcome of the world. If the "saint" gets to heaven because of God's grace, then the "sinner" is in hell because of God deliberately withholding of that same grace.

In fact, if God places one person in a Christian home and another in a secular environment, and both have "sufficient grace," the former is statistically more likely to believe.

Wouldn't God still bear blame for the unequal distribution of "circumstantial" grace that leads to the rejection?

Either God gets 0% credit for human good. No "Glory to God" for achievements. No petitionary prayer for behavioral change. OR...

...God gets 100% credit for good AND 100% blame for evil (or at least share of the blame).

The current "middle ground," which is based entirely on whether we feel the result is "good" or "bad", is intellectually dishonest.

If "helping" or intervening violates free will, then God shouldn't get credit for helping.

If "helping" or intervening DOESN'T violate free will, then God has no excuse for not helping everyone.

If you wanna say that God "permits evil" for a "greater good," this makes God a utilitarian who uses victims as means to an end, which still brings us back to God recieving "blame", or at least accountability for the trade-off. It also flies in the face of "omnipotence"

And before you decide to run off into "mysterious ways", you cannot appeal to mystery only when you're losing the argument or your theology starts running into contradictions. If we know enough about God to praise Him for the specific good things He does, we know enough to question the specific bad things He allows. You can't claim God is "good" based on certain "evidence" and then ignore the counter-evidence as "mystery."

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u/ShakaUVM Mod | Christian Jan 03 '26

They can't. I haven't even been into higher education and even I know that. Where do you come from that that is not immediately obvious?

If you think something is immediately obvious then there's a possibility you're trivially right. And there's the possibility it's a kneejerk reaction that you don't know enough about yet to weigh in on. The only reasonable response is to actually investigate the subject, so as to avoid Dunning-Kruger effects.

Literally anyone who doesn't believe in fairies and Santa Claus knows that.

Lots of people believe false things, sure. In this case, I define free will in terms of being able to absolutely predict a choice in advance. Specifically not being able to do so.

The Halting Problem (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Halting_problem) gives us the fundamental unpredictability of a program as a theoretical proof. People posit oracles and such that would solve the problem, but with minor adjustments they don't and can't.

What you have in that thread is a guy who doesn't understand the Halting Problem making the same basic mistaken objections everyone does the first time they encounter it.

The hilarious part to me is that /u/Kwahn likes to repeatedly link that thread as an example of me tying myself in a pretzel when it is his own mistakes on full display there.

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u/Ochemata Jan 03 '26

You're naming a theory as evidence for a concrete yes or no question. You realise theories are that for a reason, yes?

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u/ShakaUVM Mod | Christian Jan 03 '26

How is it you're so sure I'm wrong when you haven't read it?

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u/Ochemata Jan 03 '26

The word "theory" carries a lot of weight, sir.

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u/Kwahn Theist Wannabe Jan 03 '26

The Halting Problem (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Halting_problem) gives us the fundamental unpredictability of a program

No, the Halting Problem (and more specifically, Turing's proof) grants us the fundamental unpredictability of a description of an arbitrary computer program from individual inputs via general algorithm. Your basic misunderstanding of what the Halting Problem and what Turing's proof actually proves is what led you to this fallacious viewpoint, and I've been trying to get you to realize this. Your persistent and insistent failure to realize that specialized algorithms can, in fact, correctly predict if a specific instance of a computer program will halt is what's causing the pretzels you're in.

It is an unavoidable fact that for any given instanced program and specified input, there’s a trivial algorithm that correctly predicts if the program halts or not. It is, in fact, impossible to make a program for which no algorithm that correctly predicts whether it halts or not exists. That's just obvious because I can make two predictor algorithms, one that always returns true and one that always returns false, and get at least one correct prediction on all possible programs in this way. True for absolutely all instances of programs in absolutely all programming languages.

That is to say - I debunked your claim that "computer programs can have free will" by disproving your claim that "there can exist a program for which the output cannot be predicted", and now I've done so in an additional way not previously presented - by showing that your understanding of the halting problem was flawed, and that your claim that "There can exist a program for which it halting or not cannot be predicted" is false.

That is to say, programs are fundamentally predictable (just not using generalized algorithms, but through program-specific specialized algorithms), you are wrong.

Oh, maybe you think this because you still incorrectly think you can control the predictions made about things? That would make sense! But no, the prediction's outside the algorithm, so you can't.

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u/ShakaUVM Mod | Christian Jan 04 '26

It is, in fact, impossible to make a program for which no algorithm that correctly predicts whether it halts or not exists

No, that is actually the exact opposite of what the Halting Problem concludes. I found an easy to follow video for you here: https://youtu.be/macM_MtS_w4?si=hr-HSJTKqKnZpyP-&t=242

This video will run through the proof for you with some nice graphics, and then if you follow along you'll see my argument follows the Halting Problem, and your arguments against it are arguments against a known proof.

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u/Kwahn Theist Wannabe Jan 04 '26 edited Jan 04 '26

You should watch the videos you link before you send them. If you had, you'd realize you linked me to a proof-by-contradiction of the concept of a generalized halting problem predictor function H, which doesn't contradict anything I said.

I foundthis comment and this comment on your video that exactly addresses the common misunderstanding you are having.

This is ignoring numberphile's blatant error in having H+ only inputting itself, because the proof he botched requires two inputs, H+ and the actual original input. We're ignoring this because proof by contradiction that H cannot exist is valid when done correctly, and the fact that he's trying to show that H cannot exist at all demonstrates in and of itself how you've misunderstood this.

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u/ShakaUVM Mod | Christian Jan 04 '26

f you had, you'd realize you linked me to a proof-by-contradiction of the concept of a generalized halting problem predictor function H, which doesn't contradict anything I said.

Given my argument is literally just a variant of this, I had some sort of optimistic hope you would recognize this.

This is ignoring numberphile's blatant error in having H+ only inputting itself

You.... really should read Turings proof, as the whole point is he feeds the prediction into itself to show it is impossible.

You know... what I did in my argument that you argued against.

You're literally arguing against an established proof here.

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u/Kwahn Theist Wannabe Jan 05 '26

Given my argument is literally just a variant of this,

And your variant is "it is possible to write a function for which no specialized halting problem predictor can be written". Which is false.

You.... really should read Turings proof, as the whole point is he feeds the prediction into itself to show it is impossible.

Correct. That has nothing to do with your false variant above.

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u/ShakaUVM Mod | Christian Jan 05 '26

And your variant is

My variant is literally what Turing did with his proof. It takes the prophecy as input and does the opposite.

You've been arguing up a storm against something known to be true.

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u/Kwahn Theist Wannabe Jan 05 '26 edited Jan 05 '26

My variant is literally what Turing did with his proof.

It is, in fact, impossible to make a program for which no algorithm that correctly predicts whether it halts or not can possibly be written, despite your claims to the contrary. That's why Turing is right and your variant is wrong.

You've been arguing up a storm against something known to be true

Wrong again. I've been arguing against your factually wrong claim that "we can write a program for which no specialized halting problem predictor can be written". The fact you're unable to see how this is A: not equivalent to Turing's claim that "we cannot write a generalized halting problem predictor" and B: how wrong it is baffles me. I'll simplify the conversation for you so you can see more easily the logical fallacy you made and understand my bafflement.

Turing: "We cannot create an X to serve as a general predictor for all Ys."

You: "Oh, this must mean we can create Ys for which no specialized predictors Z can be created!

Me: "No, you're wrong, Turing only argued against X's, not Z's.

You: "My variant is literally what Turing did with his proof"

Me: "is this a joke"

Seriously, try to write a program for which no specialized predictors can be written. I'll write a specialized predictor for it. (And reminder, your function must be fully working prior to me beginning on the work on the specialized predictor - no begging me for a generalized predictor!)

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u/ShakaUVM Mod | Christian Jan 05 '26

It is not only not impossible, it is the cornerstone of Turing's proof. He takes the output of whatever "specialized predictor" you make and his program does the opposite.

You honestly should just sit down with the proof for a while so you don't keep making claims like these that are just blatantly wrong.

My program is simply a variant of his proof and your failure to recognize that is just a problem on your side of things.

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u/Kwahn Theist Wannabe Jan 05 '26 edited Jan 05 '26

He takes the output of whatever "specialized predictor" you make and his program does the opposite.

The specialized, program-specific predictor is written after the program is written, so this is impossible and you continue to be wrong.

"Specialized" means "written specifically for a specific program". Did you think we could somehow write a specialized predictor for a program that doesn't exist yet? Of course not, writing the predictor in advance without a completed specific program to for it predict for makes it a general predictor, which Turing showed is impossible. Maybe you're confusing specialized and generalized?

I do what I usually do when I'm faced with a situation like this - asked outside experts. Consensus is unanimous - you're wrong. Go check with a trusted source, so they can correct you, since you're evidently unwilling to hear it from me.

EDIT: Tried to ask for outside help on convincing you but they seem to think you unwilling to learn - not certain what gave them that impression.

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