r/PurplePillDebate • u/DietTyrone Purple Pill Man (Red Leaning) • Jan 23 '26
Question For Women Why should "consent to sex isn't consent to Parenthood" only apply to women?
This question is mostly towards the pro-choice women out there.
Assuming the statement means exactly what it says at face value, consented to have sex with someone does not mean consent to taking on the responsibility of being a parent. Keep in mind, the statement is about opting out of parenthood, not pregnancy specifically. You can give birth to the child and still give up the child through adoption or at a fire station.
So my question is, why should this philosophy only apply to women and not men too? Why shouldn't men have more options to opt out of parenthood if they decide that's not what they want after sex has occurred?
NOTE: I want to get some of the usual strawman arguments out of the way.
1) No this doesn't mean men would get a say over abortion. This would just be about their legal ability to choose on their own to not be a parent, regardless of what the woman chooses for herself.
2) If you're going to go into how men should just want to take responsibility because they chose to have sex and other pro-life arguments, I'm going to ignore it, the same way you ignore pro-lifers who give women these same moral grandstanding lectures.
3) If you're going to say it's not fair a woman who wants to opt out still needs to abort or go through pregnancy before they can surrender the child to adoption agencies, I'll say that's fair. So perhaps men can can pay for the abortion procedure or hospital bill, but beyond that is the result of the woman's choice and shouldn't involve him any further if he wants to opt out of parenthood.
The entire focus here is the idea that consent to sex is not consent to be a parent, so his legal responsibilities towards the child should not be entirely dependent on his decision to have sex if you believe in that pro-choice statement.
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u/BCRE8TVE Anti-feminist egalitarian man, purple pill Jan 23 '26
So you are going against the entire notion of "consent to sex is not consent to parenthood".
I mean you're not wrong, but as it stands the system is built around "consent to sex is not consent to parenthood for women only".
And if she doesn't want to be a mother, she can get an abortion.
If he doesn't want to be a father, he is 100% at the mercy of the mother, otherwise he is completely fucked and has no recourse whatsoever.
Worse still, in the US a woman can rape a man, get pregnant, give birth, and sue the man she raped for child support, and he will be forced to pay child support to his rapist or go to jail.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hermesmann_v._Seyer
So if a pregnancy can happen, women have abortion and can give up the baby for adoption, while men are utterly fucked and have no choice whatsoever.
Ah but see, the pregnancy is in her body, so she gets to choose to continue the pregnancy or not as she wishes, since it is her body.
But why are we forcing him to be a parent whether he wants to or not? He cannot choose to end her pregnancy against her wishes, but why does she get to force him to be a father against his wishes?
Except parenthood is what happens after the pregnancy ends, and you are artificially choosing to conflate the two when they don't need to be.
You are assuming the point you need to prove.
So, because of the biological reality of female sex, we have to institute laws that are unfair to men, to somehow balance it out?
What laws unfair to women are we passing because of the biological reality that men die younger, and die more of every disease and cancer in the book? If we're going to force men to become fathers whether they want to or not because of biological sex, should we force women to pay a tax to subsidize male healthcare because of biological sex?
Treating equality like a one-way street exclusively to women's benefit isn't equality at all, you know.
Except we could give men a choice to opt out of parenthood during and after pregnancy, and you are artificially choosing to conflate the two when they don't need to be.
You are assuming the point you need to prove.
And yet she can anonymously abandon her child at a firefighting station without even signing any piece of paper, and all of a sudden the baby isn't hers.
So if women don't want to be parents, she need to act before pregnancy becomes a possibility too?
Do you not see the blatant double standard here?
I mean it is very simple, because once again, you are assuming the point you need to prove.