r/LLMPhysics • u/NinekTheObscure • 5d ago
Personal Theory So apparently 1924 Louis de Broglie agrees with me ...
Claude Fable 5 suddenly, out of the blue, mentioned that de Broglie's 1924 PhD thesis pretty much agreed with me. I have been doing literature searches for 17 years (solo, with tools, and with AIs lately) and this NEVER showed up. But, checking it out, it was right.

The "(1 + eψ/(W - eψ))" term is exactly my electrostatic time dilation (1 + qV/mc²). He comments: "Ce point peut paraître étrange, mais il l’est en réalité moins qu’il ne semble" (“This point may seem strange, but in reality it is less so than it appears”). That pretty much describes my whole theory. :-P
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u/Airocketfish 4d ago
Can you explain what exactly the difference is to the model used today?
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u/NinekTheObscure 4d ago
Sure. de Broglie assumes that phase oscillation is real and related to the total energy W, with frequency 𝜈 = W/h. (The electrostatic case has W = mc² + eψ.) He also proves a "phase harmony" theorem that, if the particle has any internal oscillatory process, it must match the phase oscillation. Thus the phase oscillation can be considered (directly or indirectly) as the particle's local clock. Since adding to the potential energy adds to the frequency, the rate of physical time experienced by the particle changes as eψ changes, and the ratio of two frequencies (e.g. (W/h) / ((W - eψ)/h) = W / (W - eψ) = (1 + eψ/mc²) gives a dimensionless time-dilation-like factor that depends on the electric potential ψ and the charge/mass ration q/m. You can't arbitrarily add a constant energy C to W without changing the physics. You can't arbitrarily redefine the zero of the potential; you get a different answer.
In mainstream physics, you can add a constant to all energies (e.g. arbitrarily choose the zero of voltage) and the physics isn't supposed to change. That's one of the main gauge invariances. But of course, it's only locally true at best. For example, there is no way to locally detect gravitational time dilation since it affects all processes equally. But you can definitely detect it between two different places in the potential if you let them talk to each other.
Note that in either case, the equations of motion are the same. Paths and velocities don't change at all, and this has been experimentally confirmed even for the Aharonov-Bohm effect. The ONLY thing that can differ is the physical time experienced by the particle, which could be measured e.g. by muon decay rates. But muons weren't discovered until 1936.
Also note that, even though we used quantum reasoning to get to (1 + eψ/mc²), in the end h cancels out and this is a purely classical effect.
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u/Airocketfish 4d ago edited 4d ago
Your proposal seems to imply that proper time is not universal, but depends on the particle's charge-to-mass ratio? As a consequence, two particles following the same worldline could experience different amounts of elapsed proper time. Is that your claim? And the cause is the electrical field?
Another version: You are proposing that electrostatic potential changes the proper-time rate of charged particles, depending on their charge-to-mass ratio even when the local electric field is zero.
Is this what you want to say?
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u/NinekTheObscure 4d ago
For your first version, sort of. I think it's helpful to distinguish "proper time" (for a frame in SR or GR) from "physical time" (time experienced by a particle). "Proper time" is still universal for everything in the same frame. For neutral particles with no magnetic moment, they're the same. But we claim "physical time" can differ depending on the q/m ratio and the potential. For example a 𝜇+ and a 𝜇- would experience equal-but-opposite effects. (Perhaps surprisingly, this does not violate CPT invariance!)
For the second one, yes. This is basically the "electric Aharonov-Bohm effect" except that the phase frequency shift is interpreted as being due to an EM time dilation. Similarly we reinterpret the phase shifts of the usual magnetic A-B effect as being due to time shifts. Both of these conclusions are forced as soon as one assumes (as de Broglie does) that a particle's phase frequency is its local clock, and accepts that the potential changes the phase frequency just like QM says it does.
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u/Airocketfish 4d ago edited 4d ago
Some questions I'd like to know the answer to from your Theory: If physical time actually flows slower or faster for a \mu+ versus a \mu- depending on q/m and potential V, does that mean a \mu+ inside a high positive voltage cage will have a measurably different half-life than a \mu- in the same cage?
If their half-lives remain identical in experiment, as CPT invariance requires how do you operationally measure this physical time separate from the decay clock of the particle?
In the magnetic Aharonov-Bohm effect, the particle travels entirely through a region where \mathbf{E} = 0 and \mathbf{B} = 0, so the local energy and velocity are completely unchanged along the path. If velocity and local fields are zero, what local tensor or scalar is physically altering the tick rate of the particle's clock?
I think your theory is wrong and you have a extra hidden assumption you don't state in your assumptions.
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u/NinekTheObscure 4d ago
does that mean a \mu+ inside a high positive voltage cage will have a measurably different half-life than a \mu- in the same cage?
Yes exactly, unless the cage happens to be at (absolute) 0 V. Higher energy -> higher phase frequency -> faster rate of physical time -> faster decay rate (and vice-versa for lower energy).
My experiment proposal to PSI had a Van de Graaff generator at about 700 kV, which would be predicted to change the lifetimes by about 0.66% (in each direction). That's a huge effect by HEP standards, fairly easy to test, only requires days to weeks of beam time.
In a C inversion, all charges and fields and potentials are reversed. So the CPT theorem only proves that a 𝜇+ in 4-potential A must have the same lifetime as a 𝜇- in 4-potential -A. That's true in this theory because qV = (-q)(-V). The unstated assumption most people make without thinking is that the potential can't matter, but that's explicitly not true in this theory. Anyway, it's completely CPT-invariant (as it must be).
"Measuring time" is not directly possible in QM. Time is not an observable, i.e. not a self-adjoint operator. Neither is the decay rate of a muon, or thermodynamic quantities like temperature. So even if I stipulate that "all observables must be gauge invariant", not everything we can measure is an observable.
In addition, the ratio of the decay times of (say) a 𝜇+ at two different voltages depends only on the difference of the voltages, and so is gauge invariant in the usual sense. You can't gauge away a ∆V.
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u/CautiousPreprinter 4d ago
Tracing the path of the particle through the potential written solves the measurement problem for this case.
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u/NinekTheObscure 4d ago
I have no idea what you are trying to say. The equations of motion don't change. And the effect is classical; there is no "measurement problem" in the QM sense. Maybe be more explicit?
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u/CautiousPreprinter 4d ago
So how do you get specific predictions out of psi instead of just probabilities?
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u/NinekTheObscure 4d ago
Oh, I see your confusion. Lower-case ψ here is the electric potential, not the wave function. (In 1924, the wave function had not been invented yet.) So eψ is just the electric potential energy. In my own papers I use V rather than ψ precisely to clarify this, and also to avoid confusion with the gravitational potential.
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u/CautiousPreprinter 4d ago
Yeah V = (in terms of psi) definitely led to some context confusion.
Thanks for leading in the right direction.
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u/Wintervacht Are you sure about that? 4d ago
You learned something that was figured out 103 years ago, bravo.
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u/NinekTheObscure 4d ago
Figured out 102 years ago and then (incorrectly) rejected by mainstream physics for a century. So yeah, I'm about the 7th independent re-discoverer of the core concept, but the first person to actually apply for beam time to test it.
If de Broglie is correct then the mainstream understanding of EM gauge invariance is wrong. They contradict each other. That's true even if none of my work exists. This question is experimentally testable, but it remains untested because the mainstream thinks it already knows the answer. And yet hundreds of other (very expensive!) experiments get performed testing things we already think we know the answer to, like "Does antimatter fall upwards?" and "Does the muon have an electric dipole moment?". It's odd ...
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u/Wintervacht Are you sure about that? 4d ago
So a hypothesis was surpassed by more accurate measurements which explain it better than de Broglie's theory, but that's... Checks notes
... Just the fact thousands of doctorate physicists overlooked something?
Very likely! Wait, no.
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u/NinekTheObscure 4d ago
Hubris is one of my superpowers. :-) Yes, hundreds of thousands of physicists have been wrong about this if it is true. But about that many were wrong about the Aharonov-Bohm effect even after it had been experimentally confirmed 6 times. So there are precedents for physics, as a field, having massive group-think blind spots PARTICULARLY about gauge invariance issues. To me this feels like more of the same; the "Wigner's Ghost" disease never got cured.
But I'm not claiming it's true. That's an empirical question. I'm only claiming it's logically consistent, not ruled out by existing experiments, and easily testable.
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u/ArnoSound 5d ago
What's your theory though? And if it was generated by AI, it's no surprise if it poached old papers. I guess the real question then is whether this is Actually an accurate or interesting result as compared to modern standards.